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CSI Canadian Securities Course Exam2 Sample Questions (Q69-Q74):
NEW QUESTION # 69
Which ratio gauges a company's ability to repay its debts using funds generated from operating activities?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Thecash flow-to-total debt ratioassesses a company's ability to repay its debts using cash generated from its operating activities. It is calculated by dividing operating cash flow by total debt. A higher ratio indicates better capacity to cover debts. This metric is crucial for evaluating financial health and understanding a firm's liquidity position. Other ratios listed have different focuses:
* Interest coverage(B) measures a company's ability to pay interest with operating income.
* Asset coverage(C) measures the protection provided to creditors.
* Debt-to-equity(D) evaluates capital structure but not immediate debt repayment ability.
References
* CSC Volume 2, Chapter 14:Company Analysis - Risk Analysis Ratios, p. 14-12 to 14-16.
NEW QUESTION # 70
What bond should an advisor recommend to someone who wants to hold bonds and maximize potential cap- tai gams when interest rates are expected to fall?
Answer: C
Explanation:
Along-term bond with a low couponwill maximize capital gains when interest rates fall. Here's why:
* Long-term bondsare more sensitive to interest rate changes due to their longer duration, which amplifies the price movement.
* Low coupon bondsare more affected by changes in interest rates compared to high coupon bonds because more of their value comes from the principal repayment rather than periodic interest payments.
Other options:
* Short-term bonds: Have lower duration and less sensitivity to interest rate changes, so they do not maximize capital gains.
* High coupon bonds: Are less sensitive to interest rate changes because of their higher periodic cash flows.
References:
* Volume 1, Chapter 7:Fixed-Income Securities: Pricing and Trading, section on "Impact of Maturity and Coupon on Bond Prices" explains the relationship between interest rate changes, bond duration, and price sensitivity.
NEW QUESTION # 71
Which derivatives transaction has the greatest default risk?
Answer: A
Explanation:
Aninterest rate forward agreement (FRA)is anover-the-counter (OTC)derivative contract. Unlike exchange- traded derivatives, OTC contracts are not centrally cleared, meaning there is nointermediary to guarantee performance. This increases counterparty (default) risk, making FRAs inherently riskier than exchange-traded contracts.
* A. Individual investor buying shares on an exchange during the ex-rights period: This is a standard transaction involving equity securities, not derivatives, and carries no default risk.
* C. Exchange-traded equity option contract between an individual investor and a dealer: Exchange- traded derivatives are backed by a clearinghouse, which mitigates default risk.
* D. Individual investor entering a futures contract with an institutional investor: Futures contracts are also exchange-traded and centrally cleared, reducing default risk.
NEW QUESTION # 72
In Canada, which industries are categorized as defensive?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Defensive industries are less sensitive to economic cycles. They tend to perform consistently regardless of economic conditions because they provide essential goods and services that consumers require regardless of their financial situation. Banking and utilities fall under this category as:
* Bankingensures essential financial services.
* Utilities(e.g., electricity, water) provide necessary services.
Industries like energy and materials are morecyclical, reacting strongly to economic fluctuations. Hence,D.
Banking and Utilitiesis the correct choice.
References:
* Volume 2, Chapter 13, "Classifying Industries by Reaction to the Economic Cycle".
NEW QUESTION # 73
What action must an investment advisor take when submitting a trade ticket for a short sale?
Answer: C
Explanation:
When submitting a trade ticket for a short sale, an investment advisor mustmark the sell-order ticket as a short sale. This ensures compliance with regulatory requirements and informs the broker and exchange that the sale involves borrowed shares. Marking the order appropriately helps maintain transparency and enables monitoring for potential market manipulation.
* A. Verify the client can borrow the shares: The responsibility for ensuring share availability lies with the broker, not the advisor.
* C. Obtain minimum margin amount from client: This is done separately as part of the account setup and transaction process, not when submitting the trade ticket.
* D. Mark it as a margin order: Short sales involve margin, but the ticket must specifically indicate "short sale" rather than just "margin."
NEW QUESTION # 74
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